The vote weight from the 1x CR from any BTS backed bitasset should be allocated to the bitasset holder, not the debt holder.
Anything greater than the 1x CR should be allocated to the debt holder, but the 1x CR is effectively the property of the bitasset holder since the debtor sold the bitasset (and thusly the underlying BTS) to the now bitasset holder.
Interesting thought experiment, sounds familiar.. 🤔
Isn't that the case already? How is this exactly programmed into the core protocol?
Joe has 1000 bts and let's suppose 1 bts = 1 USD. Voting power of Joe = 1000.
Joe borrows 500 BitUSD by using his 1000 bts as collateral at a CR=2. He keeps his 500 BitUSD, What's his voting power now? 1000 or 1500?
Now, Joe buys 500 Bts from Carol using his 500 BitUSD. Carol is left with 500 BitUSD only. Now Joe's voting power is 1500.
Before the transaction Carol's voting power = 500. What's Carol voting power after the trade?
I think the correct way to handle this according to the following equation proposed by Clockwork:- Joe's voting power after the trade: Collateral above of Cr=1
- Carol's voting power from the trade: 0
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That is, in our example, once Joe uses his first 1000 Bts to create 500 BitUSD at a CR=2. His voting power becomes 500. Not because of the 500 BitUSD he holds now, but because the 500 Bts he has in excess collateral.
Once Joe takes those 500 BitUSD to Buy 500 Bts, his collateral is 1000 again. 500 bts from excess collateral + 500 Bts he just bought.
If Joe uses those 500 Bts to create 250 BitUsd, at a CR= 2, his voting power now becomes 500 Bts from excess collateral from the first trade + 250 Bts from excess collateral from the 2nd trade = 750.
Etc.
Sapiens